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NEW QUESTION: 1
DRAG DROP

Answer:
Explanation:

NEW QUESTION: 2
Which of the following is a likely effect of a narrow span of control?
A. The manager's control over employees is limited.
B. The manager closely supervises employees.
C. The organizational structure is flexible.
D. Each employee is given more responsibility.
Answer: B
Explanation:
The span of control is the number of subordinates for which a manager or supervisor is responsible. When the span of control is narrow, a few subordinates are tightly controlled. A narrow span of control is typical of tall organizational structures.

NEW QUESTION: 3
A technician needs to set up a VPN for a small office. To ensure the network traffic is routed to the correct machine, which of the following MUST the technician do on the router to accommodate this?
A. Port selection
B. Port redundancy
C. Port forwarding
D. Port triggering
Answer: C

NEW QUESTION: 4
An analyst is attempting to value shares Kingdom Semiconductor, a large silicon distributor. Assume the following information for Kingdom shares:
Required rate of return on equity: 16.25% per year
Free cash flow to equity multiple at t4: 32
2,500,000 shares outstanding
Additionally, the analyst has obtained the following estimates of free cash flow to equity for Kingdom over the next four years:
Year 1: $2,000,000
Year 2: $3,500,000
Year 3: $4,500,000
Year 4: $5,000,000
Using this information, what is the value per share of Kingdom Semiconductor according to the Free Cash Flow to Equity Model?
A. The answer cannot be calculated from the information provided.
B. $39.02
C. $44.74
D. None of these answers is correct.
E. $35.69
F. $46.29
Answer: B
Explanation:
Explanation/Reference:
Explanation:
When determining the value of a common stock using the free cash flow to equity model, it is necessary to determine three things:
1. The required rate of return on equity investments.
2. The estimated free cash flow to equity multiple at time "k."
3. The estimated free cash flows figures for the time periods leading up to "k." In this example, the calculation must begin with the discounting the free cash flow to equity figures for each of the four years provided. These figures are discounted each period by the required return on equity investments, and the final answer is converted to a per-share basis. This process is illustrated below:
Year 1: ($2,000,000 / 1.1625) / 2,500,000 shares outstanding = $0.69
Year 2: [$3,500,000 / (1.1625)(1.1625)] / 2,500,000 shares outstanding = $1.04 Year 3: [$4,500,000 / (1.1625)(1.1625)(1.1625)] / 2,500,000 shares outstanding = $1.15 Year 4: [$5,000,000 / (1.1625)(1.1625)(1.1625)(1.1625)] / 2,500,000 shares outstanding = $1.10 Now that the free cash-flow-to-equity figures have been discounted and converted to a per-share basis, the next step in the valuation process is to determine the value of the final cash flow, which is defined as:
[(Free cash flow to equity multiple * Final free cash flow) / (1 + r)(1+r)...(1 + k)] In the body of this question, we were given the anticipated multiple of free cash to equity that shares of Intelligent Semiconductor will sell for at time period: specifically 32 times. Imputing this information into the terminal cash flow equation will yield the following:
{[32 * ($5,000,000 / 2,500,000 shares outstanding)] / [(1.1625) (1.1625)(1.1625)(1.1625)]} = $35.04.
Adding the answers from step 1 to the final year cash flow will yield the following:
Value of Intelligent Semiconductor = [$0.69 + $1.04 + $1.15 + $1.10 + $35.04] = $39.02 per share.