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NEW QUESTION: 1
Which statement describes the IP and MAC allocation requirements for virtual machines on types 1 hypervisors?
A. Each virtual machine requires a unique IP and MAC addresses to be able to reach to other nodes.
B. Each virtual machines requires a unique IP address but shares the MAC address with the address of the physical server.
C. Each virtual machine requires a unique MAC address but shares the IP address with the physical server.
D. Each virtual machine requires a unique IP address but shares the MAC address with the physical server
Answer: A
Explanation:
Explanation
A virtual machine (VM) is a software emulation of a physical server with an operating system.
From an application's point of view, the VM provides the look
and feel of a real physical server, including all its components, such as CPU, memory, and network interface cards (NICs).
The virtualization software that creates VMs and performs the hardware abstraction that allows multiple VMs to run concurrently is known as a hypervisor.
There are two types of hypervisors: type 1 and type 2 hypervisor.
In type 1 hypervisor (or native hypervisor), the hypervisor is installed directly on the physical server. Then instances of an operating system (OS) are installed on the hypervisor. Type 1 hypervisor has direct access to the hardware resources. Therefore they are more efficient than hosted architectures. Some examples of type 1 hypervisor are VMware vSphere/ESXi, Oracle VM Server, KVM and Microsoft Hyper-V.
In contrast to type 1 hypervisor, a type 2 hypervisor (or hosted hypervisor) runs on top of an operating system and not the physical hardware directly. answer 'Each virtual machine requires a unique IP and MAC addresses to be able to reach to other nodes' big advantage of Type 2 hypervisors is that management console software is not required. Examples of type 2 hypervisor are VMware Workstation (which can run on Windows, Mac and Linux) or Microsoft Virtual PC (only runs on Windows).
NEW QUESTION: 2
You configure your database Instance to support shared server connections.
Which two memory areas that are part of PGA are stored in SGA instead, for shared server connection?
A. Location of a part of the runtime area for SELECTstatements
B. Stack space
C. Private SQL area
D. User session data
E. Location of the runtime area for DML and DDL Statements
Answer: C,D
Explanation:
Explanation/Reference:
Explanation:
A: PGA itself is subdivided. The UGA (User Global Area) contains session state information, including stuff like package-level variables, cursor state, etc. Note that, with shared server, the UGA is in the SGA. It has to be, because shared server means that the session state needs to be accessible to all server processes, as any one of them could be assigned a particular session. However, with dedicated server (which likely what you're using), the UGA is allocated in the PGA.
C: The Location of a private SQL area depends on the type of connection established for a session. If a session is connected through a dedicated server, private SQL areas are located in the server process' PGA. However, if a session is connected through a shared server, part of the private SQL area is kept in the SGA.
Note:
* System global area (SGA)
The SGA is a group of shared memory structures, known as SGA components, that contain data and control information for one Oracle Database instance. The SGA is shared by all server and background processes. Examples of data stored in the SGA include cached data blocks and shared SQL areas.
* Program global area (PGA)
A PGA is a memory region that contains data and control information for a server process. It is nonshared memory created by Oracle Database when a server process is started. Access to the PGA is exclusive to the server process. There is one PGA for each server process. Background processes also allocate their own PGAs. The total memory used by all individual PGAs is known as the total instance PGA memory, and the collection of individual PGAs is referred to as the total instance PGA, or just instance PGA. You use database initialization parameters to set the size of the instance PGA, not individual PGAs.
NEW QUESTION: 3
You administer a Microsoft SQL Server 2014 instance that contains a financial database hosted on a storage area network (SAN).
The financial database has the following characteristics:
The database is continually modified by users during business hours from Monday through Friday between
09:00 hours and 17:00 hours. Five percent of the existing data is modified each day.
The Finance department loads large CSV files into a number of tables each business day at 11:15 hours and
15:15 hours by using the BCP or BULK INSERT commands. Each data load adds 3 GB of data to the database.
These data load operations must occur in the minimum amount of time.
A full database backup is performed every Sunday at 10:00 hours. Backup operations will be performed every two hours (11:00, 13:00, 15:00, and 17:00) during business hours.
On Wednesday at 10:00 hours, the development team requests you to refresh the database on a development server by using the most recent version.
You need to perform a full database backup that will be restored on the development server.
Which backup option should you use?
A. CONTINUE AFTER ERROR
B. Differential
C. SIMPLE
D. NORECOVERY
E. STANDBY
F. RESTART
G. CHECKSUM
H. NO_CHECKSUM
I. BULK_LOGGED
J. FULL
K. Transaction log
L. COPY_ONLY
M. DBO ONLY
N. SKIP
Answer: L
Explanation:
Explanation
COPY_ONLY specifies that the backup is a copy-only backup, which does not affect the normal sequence of backups. A copy-only backup is created independently of your regularly scheduled, conventional backups. A copy-only backup does not affect your overall backup and restore procedures for the database.
References:
https://docs.microsoft.com/en-us/sql/t-sql/statements/backup-transact-sql
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