PECB ISO-IEC-20000-Foundation Q&A - in .pdf

  • ISO-IEC-20000-Foundation pdf
  • Exam Code: ISO-IEC-20000-Foundation
  • Exam Name: ISO/IEC 20000 Foundation Exam
  • PDF Version: V19.35
  • Q & A: 365 Questions and Answers
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  • Exam Code: ISO-IEC-20000-Foundation
  • Exam Name: ISO/IEC 20000 Foundation Exam
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  • Exam Code: ISO-IEC-20000-Foundation
  • Exam Name: ISO/IEC 20000 Foundation Exam
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  • Q & A: 365 Questions and Answers
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NEW QUESTION: 1
Relationships among security technologies are BEST defined through which of the following?
A. Process improvement models
B. Network topology
C. Security architecture
D. Security metrics
Answer: C
Explanation:
Explanation
Security architecture explains the use and relationships of security mechanisms. Security metrics measure improvement within the security practice but do not explain the use and relationships of security technologies.
Process improvement models and network topology diagrams also do not describe the use and relationships of these technologies.

NEW QUESTION: 2
Which of the following circumstances most likely would cause an auditor to suspect that there are material
misstatements in an entity's financial statements?
A. Senior management has an excessive interest in upgrading the entity's information technology
capabilities.
B. Related party transactions take place in the ordinary course of business with an entity that is audited by
another CPA firm.
C. Supporting accounting records and files that should be readily available are not produced promptly
when requested.
D. Senior financial management participates in the selection of accounting principles and the
determination of significant estimates.
Answer: C
Explanation:
Explanation/Reference:
Explanation:
Choice "B" is correct. Missing or unavailable documents or electronic evidence may be indicative of an
intentional material misstatement in the entity's financial statements (fraud).
Choice "A" is incorrect. Senior financial management should participate in the selection of accounting
principles and the determination of significant estimates. This would not be indicative of material
misstatements in the entity's financial statements.
Choice "C" is incorrect. The auditor would need to audit related party transactions to ensure that there is
proper financial statement disclosure, but the existence of such transactions would not be indicative of
material misstatements in the entity's financial statements.
Choice "D" is incorrect. The fact that senior management wants to upgrade the entity's information
technology capabilities would not be indicative of material misstatements in the entity's financial
statements.

NEW QUESTION: 3
Which jobs are used to help distribute file data across an Isilon cluster?
A. AutoBalance, AutoBalanceLin, FlexProtect, and SmartPools
B. IntegrityScan, TreeDelete, AutoBalance, and SetProtectPlus
C. MediaScan, Collect, QuotaScan, and AVScan
D. AutoBalance, IntegrityScan, Multiscan, and ShadowStoreProtect
Answer: A

NEW QUESTION: 4
DNA evidence has increasingly been used in court to prove guilt and to exonerate the innocent.
Because so many convicted felons have been cleared by DNA evidence, all cases in which someone was convicted largely on circumstantial evidence should be called into question and reviewed.
Which of the following, if true, would most strengthen this argument?
A. DNA evidence is 99.8% accurate.
B. Of every ten cases in which DNA evidence becomes available post-conviction, five convictions are overturned.
C. DNA evidence is admissible even after the statute of limitations has expired.
D. DNA evidence is very difficult to falsify or tamper with.
E. One in three convictions today rests largely on DNA evidence.
Answer: B
Explanation:
Explanation/Reference:
Explanation:
The fact that would most strengthen this argument is the percentage of cases in which DNA evidence overturned prior convictions. If half of all cases resulted in erroneous convictions that were later cleared by DNA evidence, then that should certainly draw other convictions into doubt. The fact that one in three of today's convictions rest on DNA evidence has no bearing on prior convictions, so choice a is incorrect.
Similarly, the admissibility of DNA evidence (choice b) has no bearing on the quality of prior convictions.
That DNA evidence is accurate (choice d) and difficult to tamper with (choice e) strengthens the argument for the use of DNA evidence in court, but it does not directly strengthen the argument that prior convictions should be called into doubt.

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