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NEW QUESTION: 1
DRAG DROP
You are the Office 365 administrator for your company. You audit the Windows Azure Active Directory Rights Management configuration for the company.
You need to view a log of the recent administrative commands performed against the Microsoft Rights Management Service.
Which three Windows PowerShell cmdlets should you run in sequence? To answer, move the appropriate cmdlets from the list of actions to the answer area and arrange them in the correct order.

Answer:
Explanation:
Box 1: Import-AadrmTpd
Box 2: Connect-AadrmService
Box 3: Get-AadrmAdminLog
Although you can activate Azure Rights Management by using the Office 365 admin center or the Azure Management Portal, you can also use the Windows PowerShell module for Azure Rights Management to do this. First we active Azure Rights Management by import it through Import-AadrmTpd, then we connect to the service with Connect-AadrmService, and finally we generate the log with Get-AadrmAdminLog.
Step 1: The Import-AadrmTpd cmdlet imports an Active Directory Rights Management Services (AD RMS) trusted publishing domain (TPD) over the Internet into your tenant for Azure Rights Management so that you can migrate Rights Management from on-premises to the cloud.
Step 2: The Connect-AadrmService cmdlet connects you to the Azure Rights Management service. This cmdlet can also be used by a partner company that manages your tenant.
Connect by using this cmdlet before you configure Rights Management by using other cmdlets in this module.
Step 3: The Get-AadrmAdminLog cmdlet generates logs for all Rights Management administrative commands.
References:
http://technet.microsoft.com/en-us/library/jj585027.aspx

NEW QUESTION: 2
You have an Exchange Server 2013 organization that contains one Client Access server named EX1 and one Mailbox server named EX2.
You have a perimeter network and an internal network. The perimeter network contains an Edge Transport server named EX3 that has Exchange Server 2010 installed.
You need to ensure that all of the email messages sent to and received from the Internet are routed through the EX3. Which three actions should you perform? (Each correct answer presents part of the solution. Choose three.)
A. Modify the default Receive connector on EX2.
B. Allow traffic over TCP 50636 from EX1 to EX3.
C. Allow SMTP traffic between EX3 and EX1.
D. Create an Edge Subscription.
E. Allow SMTP traffic between EX3 and EX2.
F. Allow traffic over TCP 50636 from EX2 to EX3.
Answer: D,E,F
Explanation:
To establish Internet mail through an Edge Transport server, subscribe the Edge Transport server to an Active Directory site. This automatically creates the two Send connectors required for Internet mail flow:
- A Send connector configured to send outbound email to all Internet domains.
- A Send connector configured to send inbound email from the Edge Transport
server to an Exchange 2013 Mailbox server.
SMTP traffic and ports TCP 50636 must be allowed between the mailbox server (routing service) and the Edge server.

NEW QUESTION: 3
Wendall Wayne is a fixed income portfolio manager with Skyline Investments. Until recently he has focused almost exclusively on residential mortgage-backed securities (MBS). However, two weeks ago he was given approval to begin purchasing asset-backed securities (ABS) and commercial MBS as well.
Wayne has forecasted that interest rates will decrease by approximately 100 basis points over the next month.
Wayne first completes an analysis of two tranches (a PAC I tranche and a support tranche) from a collateralized mortgage obligation (CMO) that was issued 18 months ago. When the CMO was issued, the initial collar of the PAC I tranche was 150 - 400 PSA. He estimates the change in the average life of each tranche as the prepayment speed varies, assuming the prepayment speed stays at that speed until the tranche matures. The results are shown in Exhibit 1.

In his report, Wayne makes the following statements regarding the CMO:
Statement 1: The CMO is structured so that the support tranche has more extension risk, and the PAC I tranche has more contraction risk.
Statement 2: The cash flows of the PAC I tranche will be less affected by the change in interest rates I have forecast than the cash flows of the support tranche.
Wayne has pushed for approval to begin trading ABS because he is particularly interested in collateralized debt obligations (CDOs). However, he doesn't know a lot about them, so he first does some reading and prepares some key points related to CDOs to guide his analysis.
Statement 3: CDOs are typically collateralized by emerging market bond issues, home equity bank loans, and high-yield corporate bond issues.
Statement 4: One advantage of issuing a synthetic CDO versus a cash CDO is that credit risk is lower with a synthetic CDO because the junior note holders also sell a credit default swap.
Statement 5: Some CDOs include an equity tranche to provide payment and credit protection to the senior and mezzanine tranches, but for most issues, credit protection is provided by external credit enhancements.
Wayne wants to understand the distinction between amortizing and non-amortizing assets that are securitized by ABS transactions, as well as the appropriate spread measures to use for various types of fixed-income securities. He asks a colleague, Martin Freed, to explain to him the difference between the two and how the payment structure of the ABS is affected by whether the assets in the pool are amortizing or non-amortizing. Freed replies:
Statement 6: An auto loan is an example of an amortizing asset, and a credit card receivable is an example of a non-amortizing asset.
Statement 7: For amortizing assets, the composition of the loans in the asset pool doesn't change once the assets are securitized. For non-amortizing assets, the composition of the asset pool does change.
Freed also tells Wayne that the credit analysis of commercial mortgage-backed securities (CMBS) should focus on the credit risk of the property, not the borrower. Freed also says that two key ratios useful for assessing the credit risk of the property are the debt service coverage ratio (net operating income/debt service) and the loan-to-value ratio (current mortgage amount/current appraised value). Wayne concludes that both of the ratios Freed recommends for credit analysis of CMBS are positively related to credit risk:
the higher the ratio, the more risky the loan.
Finally, Wayne is trying to determine the most appropriate spread measure for valuing callable corporate bonds and high-quality home equity loan ABS. He plans to choose from the following measures: the zero- volatility spread, the OAS from the binomial model, and the OAS from the Monte Carlo model.
Which of the two tranches (XX or YY) is most likely the support tranche, and what is the effective collar of the PAC 1 tranche?
Support tranche ;Effective collar of PAC 1 tranche
A. YY ;100-300 PSA
B. XX ;100-300 PSA
C. XX ;0-400 PSA
Answer: B
Explanation:
Explanation/Reference:
Explanation:
CMOs are structured so that the prepayment risk (as measured by the average life variability) is lower for the PAC I tranche than the support tranche. The average life of Tranche YY in Exhibit 1 is constant at 5.1 over a relatively large range of prepayment speeds (100 - 300 PSA). Therefore, Tranche YY is the PAC I tranche, and the effective collar of the PAC I tranche (the range of prepayment speeds over which rhe average life of the tranche is constant) is 100 - 300 PSA. Tranche XX has a much higher average life variability, so it must be the support tranche. (Study Session 15, LOS 55.h,i)